Capital Gains Tax on Second Property
Posted by: Tarquin Maynard - Portly on 31 March 2004
Muchachos
A Friend Of Mine is likely to sell a flat he currently rents out, and once lived in - moved out around 8 years ago. He purchased it in 1989: how does CGT kick in? What indexations are allowed? Etc etc.
After the mortgage he will have a paper gross profit in excess of £50k, most of which will be rolled over into another Buy to Let.
A Fraim might magically appear, though.
Any comments much appreciated - AG?
Regards
Mike
Spending money I don't have on things I don't need.
A Friend Of Mine is likely to sell a flat he currently rents out, and once lived in - moved out around 8 years ago. He purchased it in 1989: how does CGT kick in? What indexations are allowed? Etc etc.
After the mortgage he will have a paper gross profit in excess of £50k, most of which will be rolled over into another Buy to Let.
A Fraim might magically appear, though.
Any comments much appreciated - AG?
Regards
Mike
Spending money I don't have on things I don't need.
Posted on: 31 March 2004 by Former member
CGT will be liable, sadly.
The gain is declared on the income tax self assessment form, taxed at the marginal rate of income tax and treated as the top slice of income. So that will be 40% then. No NI implications.
Indexation is explained here
There is an "allowance" of £7k or so, which is tax free.
I'm not sure about rolling over the gain into another property - but something deep within me thinks it's unlikely to be possible. It's late, I'm tired, I could be wrong.
MichaelC/NB/Simon Perry may chime in to correct me and to point out some cunning ways to mitigate the CGT liability.
ag
The gain is declared on the income tax self assessment form, taxed at the marginal rate of income tax and treated as the top slice of income. So that will be 40% then. No NI implications.
Indexation is explained here
There is an "allowance" of £7k or so, which is tax free.
I'm not sure about rolling over the gain into another property - but something deep within me thinks it's unlikely to be possible. It's late, I'm tired, I could be wrong.
MichaelC/NB/Simon Perry may chime in to correct me and to point out some cunning ways to mitigate the CGT liability.
ag
Posted on: 31 March 2004 by Bob McC
If he's got a partner get it in both names then they benefit from two CGT allowances of around 8k each.
Also take professional advice, or he could ask the tax man for advice - don't know how objective they are though!
Bob
Also take professional advice, or he could ask the tax man for advice - don't know how objective they are though!
Bob
Posted on: 31 March 2004 by John Channing
There was an article in the Money section of the Sunday Times last weekend on precisely the subject of reducing the cost of a second home. It's available here online. Basically, your friend needs to declare the house he is about to sell as his main residence.
John
John
Posted on: 31 March 2004 by MichaelC
Mike
The principles:
The gain is calculated as the difference between the sale proceeds and the purchase price.
The gain is further reduced by: legal costs on acquisition/disposal; Stamp Duty on purchase; agents' fees on disposal; costs of improvements (NOT repairs); indexation (a sort of inflation allowance).
The gain as calculated above is then reduced on a pro-rata basis for the number of years in which the property was the main residence. So using your example 6/14 or thereabouts of the gain is exempt from Capital Gains Tax. Additionally, as the property was let the last three years of the ownership are exempted so the exemption is actually 9/14 or thereabouts.
The gain as recalculated above can further be reduced by what is known as a let property exemption which is the lower of the chargeable gain or £40,000.
There is an annual exemption - approx £8K. If the property was jointly owned then the gain can be split and two annual exemptions claimed.
If there remains a gain chargeable to Capital Gains Tax this is taxed at the marginal rate ie any remaining basic rate band taxed at 22% and thereafter at 40%. The actual rate of CGT can be reduced by taper relief.
You are welcome to drop me a line or pt me.
Cheers
Mike
The principles:
The gain is calculated as the difference between the sale proceeds and the purchase price.
The gain is further reduced by: legal costs on acquisition/disposal; Stamp Duty on purchase; agents' fees on disposal; costs of improvements (NOT repairs); indexation (a sort of inflation allowance).
The gain as calculated above is then reduced on a pro-rata basis for the number of years in which the property was the main residence. So using your example 6/14 or thereabouts of the gain is exempt from Capital Gains Tax. Additionally, as the property was let the last three years of the ownership are exempted so the exemption is actually 9/14 or thereabouts.
The gain as recalculated above can further be reduced by what is known as a let property exemption which is the lower of the chargeable gain or £40,000.
There is an annual exemption - approx £8K. If the property was jointly owned then the gain can be split and two annual exemptions claimed.
If there remains a gain chargeable to Capital Gains Tax this is taxed at the marginal rate ie any remaining basic rate band taxed at 22% and thereafter at 40%. The actual rate of CGT can be reduced by taper relief.
You are welcome to drop me a line or pt me.
Cheers
Mike
Posted on: 31 March 2004 by MichaelC
Oh, I should mention that there is no rollover relief available because the property is not a business asset.
Mike
Mike
Posted on: 31 March 2004 by Tarquin Maynard - Portly
Muchachos
Muchos gracias..from My Friend, of course...
Thanks very much for the replies.
Regards
Mike
Spending money I don't have on things I don't need.
Muchos gracias..from My Friend, of course...
Thanks very much for the replies.
Regards
Mike
Spending money I don't have on things I don't need.
Posted on: 31 March 2004 by Rasher
Surely if the property is owned by a business and the profit spent on another property within the same tax year?
Posted on: 31 March 2004 by MichaelC
quote:
Originally posted by Rasher:
Surely if the property is owned by a business and the profit spent on another property within the same tax year?
A residential property is simply not defined as a business asset. So it is irrelevant that the proceeds are re-invested into anything.
Mike
Posted on: 01 April 2004 by Former member
One important point which I don't think has already been mentioned, is that if he lived in it 8 years ago, he gets 3 years after he moved out capital gains tax free.
So it's only the gain on the last 5 years that counts.
edit: actually I think Michael did cover it above.
So it's only the gain on the last 5 years that counts.
edit: actually I think Michael did cover it above.
Posted on: 01 April 2004 by NB
Morning guys,
One thing not already mentioned is VCT's.
I am not an expert on the subject but I beleive the gain can be rolled over into a VCT. If the VCT is then held for 5 years the gain can be mitigated.
As I said I am not an expert so the above advice needs to be checked out before acting on it.
Regards
NB
One thing not already mentioned is VCT's.
I am not an expert on the subject but I beleive the gain can be rolled over into a VCT. If the VCT is then held for 5 years the gain can be mitigated.
As I said I am not an expert so the above advice needs to be checked out before acting on it.
Regards
NB
Posted on: 01 April 2004 by MichaelC
Notwithstanding the rules, the VCT option disappears on 5 April so that looks like a non-starter.
Mike
Mike
Posted on: 01 April 2004 by Rasher
quote:
Originally posted by MichaelC:
A residential property is simply not defined as a business asset. So it is irrelevant that the proceeds are re-invested into anything.
But what about it being a property development company?
Posted on: 07 April 2004 by tartarus
Hello,
Nice to hear about VCT? But is everyone out there a disconsolate accountant?
My name is taken from lowest region of the world, a dank, gloomy pit, surrounded by a wall of bronze, and beyond that a three-fold layer of night; it is one of the first entities to exist in the universe; primarily the prison for defeated gods and a place of punishment for sinners-just like my sense of humour!
Nice to hear about VCT? But is everyone out there a disconsolate accountant?
My name is taken from lowest region of the world, a dank, gloomy pit, surrounded by a wall of bronze, and beyond that a three-fold layer of night; it is one of the first entities to exist in the universe; primarily the prison for defeated gods and a place of punishment for sinners-just like my sense of humour!
Posted on: 08 April 2004 by MichaelC
quote:
Originally posted by Rasher:
But what about it being a property development company?
Hadn't looked at this thread for a while.
Again, I am sure that you will find that a gain cannot be rolled over by a property development company unless the property in question was used for a trading purpose.
Mike
Posted on: 08 April 2004 by MichaelC
quote:
Originally posted by tartarus:
Hello,
Nice to hear about VCT? But is everyone out there a disconsolate accountant?
VCTs haven't gone away. Investments in VCTs now attract Incoem Tax relief.
I certainly wouldn't call myself a disconsolate accountant!
Mike
Posted on: 08 April 2004 by Former member
My homework for this bank holiday weekend is to write to a client about the pro's and cons of VCT's, a subject I know little about.
I am a disconsolate accountant.
I am a disconsolate accountant.
Posted on: 08 April 2004 by Mick P
I own two houses that I rent out in Swindon.
If I sell these two houses to buy another house in Spain which I will rent out over there, do I have to pay CGT.
Regards
Mick
If I sell these two houses to buy another house in Spain which I will rent out over there, do I have to pay CGT.
Regards
Mick
Posted on: 08 April 2004 by Tarquin Maynard - Portly
Mick
I am pretty sure you would - the fact is that the sale in the UK is a disposal and has no bearing on your Spanish dealings.
Console yourself by going to see la Brightman
http://www.ticketmaster.co.uk/cgi/asp_events/byid.asp?event_id=1800378BF36EDE56&category=Performing_Arts
Regards
Mike
Spending money I don't have on things I don't need.
I am pretty sure you would - the fact is that the sale in the UK is a disposal and has no bearing on your Spanish dealings.
Console yourself by going to see la Brightman
http://www.ticketmaster.co.uk/cgi/asp_events/byid.asp?event_id=1800378BF36EDE56&category=Performing_Arts
Regards
Mike
Spending money I don't have on things I don't need.
Posted on: 08 April 2004 by NB
Mick,
If I sell these two houses to buy another house in Spain which I will rent out over there, do I have to pay CGT.
_______________________________________________________________
If you have made a gain more than the exemption of £8,200, then you will have to pay CGT. The fact you are investing in a Spanish property is irelevant, as rollover relief is not available for rented property, whether a property management company or not.
Regards
NB
If I sell these two houses to buy another house in Spain which I will rent out over there, do I have to pay CGT.
_______________________________________________________________
If you have made a gain more than the exemption of £8,200, then you will have to pay CGT. The fact you are investing in a Spanish property is irelevant, as rollover relief is not available for rented property, whether a property management company or not.
Regards
NB
Posted on: 08 April 2004 by NB
Alex,
If you ever need any help on VCT's then drop me a line!
Regards
NB
If you ever need any help on VCT's then drop me a line!
Regards
NB